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to write vs. to have written
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Member
Posts: 275
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Can one say the following?

a. He was a genius to write that brilliant piece of music we just heard.
b. He must have been a genius to write that brilliant piece of music we just heard.

c. He was a genius to have written that brilliant piece of music we just heard.
d. He must have been a genius to have written that brilliant piece of music we just heard.

e. He is a genius to write that brilliant piece of music we just heard.
f. He must be a genius to write that brilliant piece of music we just heard.


Many thanks.

This message has been edited. Last edited by: azz,
Member
Posts: 242
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quote:
c. He was a genius to have written that brilliant piece of music we just heard.
d. He must have been a genius to have written that brilliant piece of music we just heard.


Only the above.
Member
Posts: 275
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Thank you so much Bazza.

How about the following?

g. He is a genius to have written that brilliant piece of music we just heard.
h. He must have be a genius to have written that brilliant piece of music we just heard.


My feeling is that these two are fine.

Many thanks.
Member
Location: Argentina
Posts: 3489
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quote:
My feeling is that these two are fine.


I agree, Azz, except for the typo you made in (h): He must be a genius to have written...

(a) and (b) obviously refer to a musician who is now dead, or no longer composes music. (g) and (h) refer to a living and currently active musician.

The question is, why do we need a perfect infinitive for the action of writing a brilliant piece of music? I think this is because judging or evaluating the musician took (or takes) place after his writing the piece of music in question.

This message has been edited. Last edited by: Gustavo, Contributor,
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