Reply to ""I'd" or "I" on the bold? Which tense is better?"

@Andrew Van Wagner posted:
Weird how there's no semantical difference?

The past perfect is redundant; that's why there's no difference. The subordinating conjunction/preposition communicates the temporal sequence all by itself. If you use the past perfect, you're just communicating it twice over.

@Andrew Van Wagner posted:
I'll just go with this?
although I visited post-USSR Russia after retiring.

Sure, you can use a nonfinite clause instead. Notice that the same principle applies. It would be redundant to use the nonfinite perfective auxiliary "having." That is, "after retiring" means the same thing as "after having retired."

8/4/223:40 PM

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