Hi, I signed up to ask a question here.

Among text books I currently work on, I found something that is awkward grammatically! Can you help me please?

 

Before I actually begin, I know that there are three conditional inversions. 

One of those can be using "Past Perfect".

ORIGINAL: If I had had money, I would have bought a car. 

ex) If I had had money, I would have bought a car. 

 

But can this be possible by just using 'had' alone? 

ORIGINAL: If I had money, I would buy a car.

ex) had I money, I would buy a car. 

Original Post

Hi, Joon, and welcome to the G.E,

JOON posted:

Hi, I signed up to ask a question here.

Among text books I currently work on, I found something that is awkward grammatically! Can you help me please?

 

ex) Had I money, I would buy a car. 

It works in British English. David, our dear moderator, has answered a similar question here:

https://thegrammarexchange.inf...second-conditional-1

BTW, we do teach this rule in Egypt, and we did have it in one of our exams.

- Had he a proper plan, he wouldn't waste his time.

 

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