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Which one(s) is(are) better/correct/grammatical/grammatically correct, why?

1. She does not have group at 3:00 p.m.
2. She does not have a group at 3:00 p.m.
3. She does not have any group at 3:00 p.m.
4. She does not have groups at 3:00 p.m.
5. She does not have any groups at 3:00 p.m.
6. She does not have a/any group(s) at 3:00 p.m. at all.

Is at all correct to use there, in any example?

Last edited {1}
Original Post
Hi, Guillermo,

1. is not correct, because "group" is a count noun in the singular form and, as such, it cannot generally take zero article (as is the case with count nouns in the plural or noncount nouns in the singular: She does not have children / She does not have money).

2. and 3. are similar, the main difference being that with "any" you are laying stress on her lack of a group. To make the negative even stronger, you can add "at all" only in combination with "any." I'd place it after "any group" > She does not have any group at all at 3:00 PM.

5.and 6. are also possible and the comments above also apply in this case.

In all four cases (2, 3, 4, and 5), the interpretation could be, as far as I see it, that she does not have any group(s) that she belongs to (supposing she's a student, for example) or that she is responsible for (supposing she's a teacher, if that's the case).
Last edited by Gustavo, Contributor
Thank you, Amy. Would you agree that we could order the four possible sentences as follows according to the degree of emphasis laid on the negative meaning that is conveyed?:

A. She does not have a group (the least emphatic).
B. She does not have any group (more emphatic).
C. She does not have a group at all (a little more emphatic than B.)
D. She does not have any group at all (the most emphatic).

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