... has been 30 minutes behind "the rest of" the Korean Standard Time...

"Since 2015, 'Pyongyang Time' has been 30 minutes behind the rest of the Korean Standard Time (KST) zone." (July, 2018 Ivy League Analytical English magazine)

Why does the author use the rest of, not all of in this sentence? According to the Longman Dictionary, the rest means "what is left after everything or everyone else has gone or been used, dealt with, or mentioned." And here is one of its examples, "Does anyone want the rest of this pizza?" 

In view of such a definition and my understanding of the word or phrase, I think the use of "the rest of" is a little odd. What do you think? 

Thank you so much!

Original Post

Hi, Barry,

That sentence makes perfect sense to me.

Geographically speaking, Pyongyang is within the UTC+9 time zone (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_in_North_Korea). According to the mentioned wikipedia article:

On 5 August 2015, the North Korean government decided to return to UTC+08:30, effective 15 August 2015, and said the official name would be Pyongyang Time or (PYT).

That meant its being 30 minutes behind the rest of the zone (UTC +8:30 as opposed to UTC +9).

If, as I said before, North Korea is geographically within the same time zone as South Korea, we can say that Pyongyang was, because of the political decision made in 2015, 30 minutes behind all the other (the rest of the) locations included in that time zone.

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