1) She has someone to teach to dance.

2) She has someone to teach dancing.

3) She has someone to teach dancing to.

In which cases:
a) The 'someone' in question is taught dancing by her
and in which cases:
b) The 'someone' in question teaches dancing.

I think '3' is clear. It seems to me that '2' means the 'someone' is doing the teaching. I am not sure about '1' at all.

Gratefully,
Navi

Original Post
navi posted:

1) She has someone to teach to dance.
2) She has someone to teach dancing.
3) She has someone to teach dancing to.

In which cases:
a) The 'someone' in question is taught dancing by her
and in which cases:
b) The 'someone' in question teaches dancing.

I think '3' is clear. It seems to me that '2' means the 'someone' is doing the teaching. I am not sure about '1' at all.

Hello, Navi,

What a fascinating question. I agree with you that (3) is clear. It is quite clearly the clearest sentence of the three, assuming the meaning is supposed to be (a).

If the meaning is supposed to be (b), then (2) works fine. If meaning (a) [edited] may be said to work with (2), I think it could only be said to work in theory. You could say:

2') She has someone to whom to teach dancing.

I  can't say that I like sentence (1) at all, though I don't want to say it's wrong, either. I suppose it works, even though the "to whom" solution can't be applied. But I'd much prefer the finite correlate:

1') She has someone (that/whom) she can teach to dance.

Last edited by David, Moderator

Thank you very much, David,

You write:

If meaning (b) may be said to work with (2), I think it could only be said to work in theory.

Didn't you mean 'meaning (a)'?

Gratefully,

Navi

navi posted:

Didn't you mean 'meaning (a)'?

Right you are, Navi. I did mean 'meaning (a).' Sorry about that. I've just edited that comment, notating that I edited it. Sometimes I accidentally jumble the letters and numbers when we're playing syntactico-semantic Connect the Dots.

Last edited by David, Moderator