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1a) He doesn't have as many books as you have.
1b) He doesn't have books as many as you have.

2a) Jim doesn't eat as much chocolate as I do.
2b) Jim doesn't eat chocolate as much as I do.

3a) He likes hockey as much as basketball.
3b) He likes as much hockey as basketball.

Do a and b mean same? And are they both correct?

If I don't make mistake 1b and 3b are wrong but 2b is correct (while word order is same for all 1b, 2b and 3b). I can feel the reason but cannot say the exact cause. Will anybody please explain it?

Thanks in advance!

Last edited by Nousher Ahmed
Original Post

Hi, Nousher,

Interesting as they are, your questions sometimes contain some more elementary mistakes you should try to correct, like using "indicate to" (which is wrong) instead of "refer to" in this previous question I didn't reply to because I saw you got quite a good answer elsewhere, or using "if I don't make mistake" instead of "if I'm not mistaken" or "if I'm not wrong" in your question above.

1a) He doesn't have as many books as you have.
1b) He doesn't have books as many as you have.

Neither 1a) nor 1b) are grammatical sentences in English because, if you use do-support in the first part, you also should in the second one. However, 1b) is even worse because of the position of "as many." A correct sentence in English would be:

1c) He doesn't have as many books as you do.

2a) Jim doesn't eat as much chocolate as I do.
2b) Jim doesn't eat chocolate as much as I do.

Both are correct, but while 2a) refers to the amount of chocolate Jim and the speaker eat, 2b) refers to the frequency of their eating chocolate. In 2a) "as much" is adjectival and modifies "chocolate," while in 2b) it is adverbial and modifies the verb phrase "eat chocolate."

3a) He likes hockey as much as basketball.
3b) He likes as much hockey as basketball. 

Only 3a) is correct. "as much" could be adjectival and modify "hockey" with another verb, like "play":

3c) He plays as much hockey as basketball.

Last edited by Gustavo, Contributor

Hi, Nousher,

Interesting as they are, your questions sometimes contain some more elementary mistakes you should try to correct, like using "indicate to" (which is wrong) instead of "refer to" in this previous question I didn't reply to because I saw you got quite a good answer elsewhere, or using "if I don't make mistake" instead of "if I'm not mistaken" or "if I'm not wrong" in your question above.

Neither 1a) nor 1b) are grammatical sentences in English because, if you use do-support in the first part, you also should in the second one. However, 1b) is even worse because of the position of "as many." A correct sentence in English would be:

1c) He doesn't have as many books as you do.

Both are correct, but while 2a) refers to the amount of chocolate Jim and the speaker eat, 2b) refers to the frequency of their eating chocolate. In 2a) "as much" is adjectival and modifies "chocolate," while in 2b) it is adverbial and modifies the verb phrase "eat chocolate."

Only 3a) is correct. "as much" could be adjectival and modify "hockey" with another verb, like "play":

3c) He plays as much hockey as basketball.

Sir, thanks a lot as you have pointed to my faults which I repeat frequently. I will never repeat it. 

1) He doesn't have books as many as you have — if this sentence is reworded in the following way, still it will be wrong, I think. 

He doesn't have books as many as you do.

It is because the as many as stays after book. Please correct me if I am wrong.  When, in 2b, chocolate can be placed before as much as, and this sentence is considered correct, why books cannot be placed before as many as?

2) 3b makes sense and is considered correct if a verb (play) replaces like. If do verb in 1b is replaced with any other verb the same as like was replaced with play in 2b, could 1b be correct as well?

 

3) If likes is replaced with plays, 3b can be correct as well. May I ask why the usage of play in 3b makes as much adjective while like cannot so? 

 

Sir, thanks a lot as you have pointed out my faults which I repeat frequently. I will never repeat it. 

1) He doesn't have books as many as you have — if this sentence is reworded in the following way, still it will be wrong, I think. 

He doesn't have books as many as you do.

It is because the as many as stays after book. Please correct me if I am wrong.  When, in 2b, chocolate can be placed before as much as, and this sentence is considered correct, why books cannot be placed before as many as?

As I explained above, "as many" can only refer to the noun "books" and must thus precede it. Instead, "as much" can be adjectival and precede the noun "chocolate," or be adverbial and come after the verb.

2) 3b makes sense and is considered correct if a verb (play) replaces like. If do verb in 1b is replaced with any other verb the same as like was replaced with play in 2b, could 1b be correct as well?

No. You can never find "as many" after the noun, unless there is another noun afterwards, for example:

1d) He doesn't read books as many times as you do.

3) If likes is replaced with plays, 3b can be correct as well. May I ask why the usage of play in 3b makes as much adjective while like cannot so? 

Because you can play a lot of hockey, but you cannot like a lot of hockey (this is not grammatical), but only like hockey a lot. Therefore, "as much" can only be adverbial with a verb such as "like" in the sentence you proposed at the beginning.

Last edited by Gustavo, Contributor

As I explained above, "as many" can only refer to the noun "books" and must thus precede it. Instead, "as much" can be adjectival and precede the noun "chocolate," or be adverbial and come after the verb.

No. You can never find "as many" after the noun, unless there is another noun afterwards, for example:

1d) He doesn't read books as many times as you do.

Because you can play a lot of hockey, but you cannot like a lot of hockey (this is not grammatical), but only like hockey a lot. Therefore, "as much" can only be adverbial with a verb such as "like" in the sentence you proposed at the beginning.

Thanks sir!

1a) He doesn't have as many books as you have.
1b) He doesn't have books as many as you have.

2a) Jim doesn't eat as much chocolate as I do.
2b) Jim doesn't eat chocolate as much as I do.

3a) He likes hockey as much as basketball.
3b) He likes as much hockey as basketball.

When, in 2b, chocolate can be placed before as much as, and this sentence is considered correct, why books cannot be placed before as many as?

As I explained above, "as many" can only refer to the noun "books" and must thus precede it. Instead, "as much" can be adjectival and precede the noun "chocolate," or be adverbial and come after the verb.

In 2a) "as much" is adjectival and modifies "chocolate," while in 2b) it is adverbial and modifies the verb phrase "eat chocolate."

Great job, Gustavo. Just so Nousher is clear about what you've explained, I'd like to clarify that "eating as much chocolate" and "eating chocolate as much" are not different ways of saying the same thing but have totally different meanings.

In the second formulation, in which, as Gustavo points out, "as much" is adverbial, "much" can be replaced by "often": "Jim doesn't each chocolate as often as I do."

But this does not work: *"Jim doesn't eat as often chocolate as I do." In "eat as much chocolate," much is a quantifier, having to do with physical amount. The meaning is about quantity, not frequency (even if inferences can be made).

By itself (not as a component of a larger phrase like "as many times"), "as many" never relates to frequency. It only works as a quantifier. This explains why "have books as many" is ungrammatical, while "have as many books" is fine.

Last edited by David, Moderator

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