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I try to convert the following sentence to a wh-question replacing both direct and indirect object with wh-pronoun.

Tom gave him a book.
1) What did Tom give him?
The direct object is replaced with "what" and this sentence seems fine.

2) Who(m) did Tom give a book?
The indirect object is replaced with "who(m)" and somebody claims this sentence is not correct.
If they are right, please let me know the reason.
Thank you.
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No. 2 is fine if you add the preposition to, Yun.

Remember, you give something to somebody, and even though give is one of those odd verbs which can influence the construction of the sentence it's in (Tom gave a book to him. / Tom gave him a book.), when the question is formed, we need to remember to include the preposition to.

If you want to be super-formal, you place the preposition in initial position:

To whom did Tom give a book?

If you want to be more conversational and use everyday English, you place the preposition in final position:

Who(m) did Tom give a book to?

I hope this explain clearly what the problem is in your no. 2, Yun.
I'd like to see some of those examples, Yun. Can you find them and post them here, please?

When a ditransitive verb is involved in a statement, we have a choice of sentence constructions.

  • If we place the direct object first, we must use a preposition (to in some cases, for in others):

    He's lending the book to me.
    She baked a cake for me.

  • If we place the indirect object first, we omit the preposition:

    He's lending me the book.
    She baked me a cake.

  • But when we make an information question with a wh- pronoun representing the indirect object, we must remember to include that preposition:

    Who is he lending the book to?
    Who did she bake a cake for?
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