Hello, dear fellows; 
I am in doubt about this. I don't know if I can ask this question here, but that, you will let me know.
How many morphemes make up the word 'imposition'?
Someone told me this and i want to verify if it is correct not.
It is formed by derivational and inflectional morphemes.
Is this right?. Is there any other?.
Thanks a lot for any help.

Original Post

Eddy,

Welcome to the Grammar Exchange.  Your question is more about syntax than grammar, but I'll allow it.  I think that it helps to have a working knowledge of Latin to understand some of this.

There are at least three morphemes present:

1: posit

This is a free morpheme as it is the root to which the other morphemes are attached.  In Latin, it is the third-person singular perfect active indicative form of the verb ponere, "he/she put", or "he/she has put".

2: -ion

This suffix is a derivational morpheme.  It causes the word, based on a verbal root, to be a noun.

3: in- (spelled and pronounced as "im-" before a "p")

This prefix is also derivational.  It distinguishes the resultant word from "exposition", "supposition", "composition", etc, as well as simply "position".

Some might argue that "-it" should be broken off from "posit" and treated as an inflectional morpheme.  My take is that that would be appropriate if we were analyzing the word in Latin, but not so much in English.

Morphology is not my main field of expertise, though.  I would appreciate hearing what other authorities have to say about my analysis.

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