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I've read this sentence in King Lear:

( Since I've arrived here, I've heard some strange news)

I know that we can use the present perfect directly after since if the verb is still going on or still has an effect but this does not go with ( arrive), so my question why is the present perfect with arrive in the above sentence? Thanks in advance.

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@Ahmed towab posted:

This sentence is taken from a simplified issue for secondary schools in Egypt. Does the structure of the sentence in this way sound right grammatically?.

No, it isn't right. It's unfortunate that the issue distorts Shakespeare's grammar. The past tense is needed in the "since"-clause, since the hearing of strange news did not extend throughout the period.

Last edited by David, Moderator

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