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In ( Cambridge Grammar today)

The writer used the present perfect after since with the verb (moved ) though it was not repeated,it happened once.

1- They haven't received any junk mail since they moved house.

2- They haven't received any junk mail since they have moved house.

Is it ok to use a non repeated verb in the present perfect after since?

Thanks in advance

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Hi, Ahmed Towab,

@Ahmed towab posted:

In ( Cambridge Grammar today)

The writer used the present perfect after since with the verb (moved ) though it was not repeated,it happened once.

1- They haven't received any junk mail since they moved house.

2- They haven't received any junk mail since they have moved house.

Is it ok to use a non repeated verb in the present perfect after since?

Thanks in advance

1. They haven't received any junk mail from the moment that / the day that they moved house. (Of course, this is 100% grammatically correct.)

The problem with 2 is that the since clause here uses the present perfect although it is neither durative nor iterative. A possible reading for 2 could be "They haven't received any junk mail because they have moved house."

Last edited by ahmed_btm

Does this mean that ( has left) can work in this sentence:

I haven't eaten anything since I have left home this morning.?

I think it must be ( left ) only because ( since ) could not be read meaning ( because) as in the above mentioned sentence in Cambridge.

I have another explanation, in Cambridge of English grammar,the author points out that the present perfect can be used in informal English to refer to completed events in the past.

The matter needs more clarification.

I'd be more grateful if other moderators could express their opinions.

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Hi, Ahmed Towab,

@Ahmed towab posted:

Does this mean that ( has left) can work in this sentence:

I haven't eaten anything since I have left home this morning.?

I think it must be ( left ) only because ( since ) could not be read meaning ( because) as in the above mentioned sentence in Cambridge.

I have another explanation, in Cambridge of English grammar,the author points out that the present perfect can be used in informal English to refer to completed events in the past.

The matter needs more clarification.

I'd be more grateful if other moderators could express their opinions.

I do have this book. By the way, it doesn't have one author, but two: 'Ronald Crater' and Michael McCarthy. In my answer, I don't mean to say that 'since' means 'because' whenever it is followed by the present perfect. I have just tried to find an acceptable justification. To me, restricting this usage to informal speech means that this is 'non-standard English'.

Hi, Ahmed Towab,

@Ahmed towab posted:

Ok

What about this example?

I haven't eaten anything since I have left home this morning.

In my opinion, ( has left) doesn't work in this context.

What do you think?

From 'A Comprehensive Grammar of the English Language', page 1018:

"The present perfective may also be used in the pattern It + Be + time expression, when there is no explicit indication of point in time, such as last:

- It has been a long time since I've seen Gerlad (cf: I haven't seen Gerlad for a long time).

The present perfective is similarly used occasionally for other since clauses that refer to a point of time, eg: I've been lonely since you've left."

In your example above, I see that 'left' goes well with 'this morning'.

Last edited by ahmed_btm

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