"same as I" or "same as me"?

Hello, Sergoat, and welcome to the Grammar Exchange.

The expression 'Same as me' is informal. With this informal expression, we do use the object pronoun. In this phrase, you can consider 'as' as a preposition. It would sound very peculiar to say Same as I.

However, if you make a longer phrase, with 'as' as a conjunction instead of a preposition, then you could say: 'The same as I am/ do.'

Both can be correct. Because the meaning will be different. 

Example 1: She saw the same person as I (the same person as I did). Same as I.

It means, both she and you saw the same person.

Example 2: She saw the same person as me. She saw me. Same as me.

It means, she saw the same person who had the same likeness e.g. job, face, etc. (You never saw anyone, but she saw someone exactly like you).

Hello, Roev, and welcome to the Grammar Exchange.

Thank you for contributing to this old thread. However, I have to say I disagree.   

Just like the late Rachel said, it would not sound right to say *same as IInformally, one would use "same as me":

  • She saw the same person as me.

This does not mean (2) but (1): We both saw the same person.

If you want to express (2), you need to use a word other than "same":

  • She saw a person who was/looked just like me / identical to me.

To express (1) in a more formal way (that is, avoiding "same as me"), a proforma will be required, just as Rachel suggested:

  • She saw the same person as I did.

Alternatively, if you want to sound more informal, you can eliminate "as":

  • She saw the same person I did.


I would consider these days "same as I" as overcorrection and a bit unnatural, but not shocking, when used by native speakers:

Louisiana Coffee ... with Lots of Cream: A Creole Family Memoir

For years, he had been living a lie about his heritage, the same as I, and had decided to forsake his roots in order to make a better life for himself.


Photos (1)

Greetings, Gustavo. I agree with you on one thing: same as me, instead of same as I (am) is informal

In my language, however, I try to follow a more formal style which to me seems more appropriate for my environment and my personality. I also believe in language logic, and that it is only a short throw from informal to incorrect. 

How many people (not I) say informally/incorrectly: in regards to (in regard to) or by foot (on foot)?

You probably also say It is me indiscriminately, when I would say It is I.

1. Who did this? It was I. (I did this). 

2. Who/whom did I see? It was me. (You saw me).

How about another me informal "abuse": me and my brother was..., or both him and me saw...? 


You wrote:

You probably also say It is me indiscriminately, when I would say It is I.

1. Who did this? It was I. (I did this). 

2. Who/whom did I see? It was me. (You saw me).

Please note that you have already used (1) and (2) as indices for other example sentences in this thread, both of which were referenced in Gustavo's reply.  In the future, please use new index numbers or letters when introducing new examples.

In this example (1), "It was I." is indeed correct according to the prescriptivist rules that were rigidly taught during most of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.  However, if you insist on this rule, you must use "I" in (2) as well.  It refers back to the subject of that sentence, regardless of what it might correspond to in the preceding question.  Also, I'm amazed that your "more formal style" allows you to consider "Who did I see?" an option.



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