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I can understand why you might be uncertain.

There was a time when English tried to copy the grammar of Latin, when ‘possessive case’ was called the ‘genitive case’.

Then things changed, but we still had
Two weeks vacation

This makes sense, since it is not a vacation that ‘two weeks’ is taking - it’s my vacation!

Then, in your sentence, there is an ellipsis in the second phrase:

a few hours of quality time, where 'of' here has the same function as:
two children
two of the children

But – bottom line, Tony. Whatever my common sense may tell me, Oxford Dictionary says that, these days, it’s:

two weeks’ vacation
in an hour’s time
Last edited by bazza
He makes sure he spends a few hours quality time with his children every day.
I've been thinking about your question here, Tony, and it seems to me that a good argument can be made for not using an apostrophe after hours.

I agree with Bazza's intuition that there is an ellipsis, or omission, of of in that example. The sentence is equivalent to He makes sure he spends a few hours of quality time with his children every day. If there is that ellipsis, then no apostrophe is needed.

There is a difference, after all, between speaking of a couple of weeks (of) vacation (time) / two weeks (of) vacation (time) and a two week's vacation. The former expressions focus on a quantity of vacation time, the latter on a type of vacation (a two week's vacation).
    Are you aware that you have two weeks vacation time saved up? (no apostrophe; of is elided)

    How did you spend your two week's vacation? (apostrophe; no ellipsis)
In the Cambridge dictionary example you have quoted, Tony, a few hours is a quantifying expression. It would be silly to say that the sentence is equivalent to this: (?) He makes sure he spends a three-hour quality time with his children every day. Yet I believe that's what the sentence would technically mean with an apostrophe after hours.

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