those who

naviMember

1) They who have gone through a war know what to expect.
2) Those who have gone through a war know what to expect.

3) Those of them who have gone through a war know what to expect.

Do all of the above sentences mean the same?

I think '1' is grammatical, but unnatural, at least in modern English.

I think '3' limits the sentence to a group within another group identified as
'them'.

'1' and '2' seem synonymous to me and are more general. I think usually they could be used instead of '3'.

Am I correct?

Gratefully,
Navi

9/29/2210:46 PM

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Original Post

David, ModeratorModerator

Hello, Navi—I agree with your commentary about the sentences. The only semantic difference seems to be that (3) is about a group within a group, whereas (1) & (2) are just about the set of people who have gone through a war.

9/30/2210:11 PM

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