Hello, teachers!

[1] Could you please tell me which is correct or natural, using the object or omitting it?
1. He spoke too low for us to hear (him).
[I think both are OK, but using 'him' is better. Am I right?]
2. He spoke too quickly to understand (him).
[I think both are OK, but using 'him' is better. Am I right?]
3. His voice was too weak/low to understand (him/it).
[I think that using 'him' is the best and using 'him' is the next. And omitting 'him/it' is correct, but using 'it' is incorrect. Am I right?]
4. His voice was too weak/low for us to hear (him/it).
[I think that omitting the object is the best and using 'him' is also correct. But using 'it' is incorrect. Am I right?]
5. The sound was too weak/low for us to hear (it).
[I think only omitting 'it' is correct. Am I right?]
6. The stream is too shallow to swim in (it).
[I think only omitting 'it' is correct. Am I right?]
7. The boy runs too fast to follow (him).
[I think only omitting 'him' is correct. Am I right?]

[2] Would you modify these sentences into (a) natural expression(s)?
- He explained it very easily for us to understand (it) easily.
- He explained it very easily for us to understand (it).

Thank you very much.
Enjoy the bright full moon.

Original Post
Unless there is some reason to add the object pronoun at the end of the infinitive phrase, don't use it.

L.G. Alexander gives this example in Longman English Grammar*:

"He is too heavy (for me) to lift.

Note the optional for-phrase, and note that we never put an object after the infinitive in sentences like this. (NOT ˜The bread is too stale for me to eat it.)"

All of your phrases are correct without the final pronoun. However, in # 3 and 4, it is possible to add "him" or "it" in order to make clear whether you are referring to him himself or to his voice.

Rachel
_______
*Longman English Grammar, by L.G. Alexander. Longman. 1988

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