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Hi, everyone,

If it is during the regular season in any sport like baseball, basketball, or hockey, and the game starts at 7:00 p.m. or 7:30 p.m. on the West Coast (10:00 p.m. or 10:30 p.m. start time in the east), how many fans are going to stay up until after 1:00 a.m. on the East Coast? Not many. So the result is an East Coast bias that definitely exists, because they miss many of the games that happen on the West Coast and don’t get to know these teams as well. Sure, they get all the information the next morning, but not seeing the games live as they do on the East Coast can hinder their view of the western teams. This is why those in the east think that, more often than not, the East Coast has better teams than the West Coast. This makes sense and is a logical argument, but is it fair? Not always, but what can they do besides recording every game and watching it in the days or weeks to come (which I’m sure rarely happens). The East Coast bias will always exist, through no one’s fault. Time is of the essence and you play the cards you’re dealt by choosing where you live.

* source;

https://books.google.co.kr/boo...lways%22&f=false


In the underlined part in this paragraph is there any special reason why the writer wrote that in question order? Maybe is it a kind of typo not to put a question mark at the end of the sentence, since I don’t find any factor which triggers the inversion?

Best RGDS,

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Hi, Deepcosmos,

@deepcosmos posted:

This makes sense and is a logical argument, but is it fair? Not always, but what can they do besides recording every game and watching it in the days or weeks to come (which I’m sure rarely happens).

The sentence is a rhetorical question, that is, one that does not expect an answer. When rhetorical questions are long, they may take no question mark. The meaning is:

- They can do nothing but record every game and watch it in the days or weeks to come.

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